Wednesday, November 15, 2006

4.8, #58

Does anyone understand number 58? I don't even understand what it's asking, otherwise I would post a more specific question about it. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Casey Blue

1 Comments:

Blogger Adam Fishman said...

so it's saying that if you have a function g(x) and a function h(x) where for every x that is valid, they are equal. The question is asking you to prove that this means that the functions themselves are equal. You do this bu saying f(x)= g(x)-h(x) and then f(c[i])=g(c[i])-h(c[i]). This is for all c and because of this and the first statement, f(all c) must be equal to zero. This means that f(x)=0= g(x)-h(x). Thisly, g(x)=h(x). Taddaaaa

-Fishface

12:22 PM  

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